Botany
I
PLSC 101
Winter
1997
FINAL
Name____________________________________
Multiple Choice (100 points). Please indicate the best answer to each question by placing an "X" over the appropriate letter preceding the correct answer .
1. Rough endoplasmic reticulum refers to the association between
A) DNA and ribosomes B) RNA and ribosomes
C) DNA and endoplasmic reticulum D) endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes.
2. Amyoplasts are plastids that store
A) lipids B) nucleic acids
C) protein D) starch.
3. The plasma lemma refers to the membrane that surrounds the
A) cell B) chloroplast
C) nulceus D) vacuole.
4. How are lipids metabolized by respiration?
A) They are interconverted into glucose and enter respiration at glycolosis.
B) They are degraded and enter respiration at the Kreb’s cycle.
C) They can not be metabolized.
D) Plants only produce glucose and need not metabolize lipids.
5. NADH is produced during one of the steps of glycolosis when
A) ATP is produced. B) bonds are shifted.
C) C - C bonds break . D) CO2 is released.
6. When insufficient O2 is available, oxidative phosphorylation can not occur and the NADH produced in gylcolosis is used in
A) fermentation. B) the Kreb’s cycle.
C) photosynthesis. D) starch formation.
7. CO2 is produced during respiration. In which step of respiration is the most CO2 produced?
A) Electron transport B) glycolysis
C) Kreb’s cycle D) equally in all processes
8. The kreb’s cycle occurs in the
A) amyoplasts B) chloroplasts
C) cytoplasm D) mitocondria
9. Kreb’s cycle results in the production of which of the following high energy molecules?
A) ATP, NADPH B) ATP, FADH, NADH
C) ATP, NADH D) FADH, NADH
10. The cascade of electrons in electron transport of respiration occurs in the
A) cristae B) grana
C) stroma
D) thylakoids
11. The
flow of electrons in the cristae results in a H+ gradient that drives
the formation of
A) ADP B) ATP
C) FADH D) NADH
12. The ultimate acceptor of the electrons from electron transport in the mitochondria is
A) ATPase B) FADH
C) NADH D) O2
13. The original source of energy to power the photosynthetic reactions is
A) ATP B) FADH
C) NADPH D) light
14. The light independent reactions of photosynthesis occur in
A) cristae B) grana
C) thylakoids D) stroma
15. Photorespiration refers to
A) photosynthetic fixation of CO2 during daylight hours
B) photosynthetic fixation of O2 during daylight hours
C) generating O2 during daylight hours in respiration
D) generating O2 during daylight hours in respiration
16. How many CO2 must be incorporated in the Calvin cycle to produce 1 glucose
A) 2 B) 4
C) 6 D) 12
17. Oxygen is generated during photosynthesis in which reaction?
A) CO2 fixation B) Calvin cycle
C) photosystem I D) photosystem II
18. C4 metabolism refers to
A) CO2 fixation into a 4-carbon intermediate
B) the product of the light reactions in photosynthesis
C) the increased rate of photosynthesis during high temperatures
D) the 4-carbon final product of the Calvin cycle
19. Thigmotropism is a plants response to
A) gravity B) light
C) photoperiod D) touch
20. Plants leaning out from the canopy at the edge of a woods is an example of
A) gravitropism B) photoperiodism
C) phototropism
D) circadian rhythm
21. Which
of the following would you apply to insure apical dominance
A) ABA B) cytokinins
C) GA D) IAA
22. Which of the following would you apply to break apical dominance
A) ABA B) cytokinins
C) GA D) IAA
23. When inducing flower production in other than day neutral plants, the critical photoperiod refers to the
A) the amount of light B) the minimum amount of light
C) the minimum amount of dark D) the maximum amount of dark
24. Which of the following is essential for a long day plant to flower
A) a short day B) a long day
C) a short night D) a long night
25. A quiescent seed is one that requires which of the following to germinate?
A) stratification B) scarification
C) an appropriate environment D) a warm period
26. If a seed has an immature embryo, which of the following will alleviate this problem
A) a cold period B) a warm period
C) ingestion by an animal D) soaking in water
27. Mitosis occurs in
A) all cells B) flower cells.
C) reproductive cells D) somatic cells
28. Homologous chromosomes pair up during
A) anaphase I B) anaphase II
C) metaphase I D) metaphase II
29. Meiosis results in
A) 2 - 1n cells B) 4 - 1n cells
C) 2 - 2n cells D) 4 - 2n cells
30. Which of the following is not a component of the DNA molecule?
A) amino acid B) base
C) phosphate
D) ribose
31. Translation refers to the production of
A) DNA from DNA B) mRNA from DNA
C) tRNA from mRNA D) protein from mRNA
32. RNA polymerase synthesizes
A) mRNA B) rRNA
C) tRNA D) DNA
33. Two plants, both Rr, are crossed. An “R” and “r” appear along the side of the Punnett square. What do the “R” and “r” represent
A) The potential genetic contribution of one parent.
B) The potential contribution of “R” from parent 1 and “r” from parent 2.
C) The genotype of all offspring.
D) The genotype of 50% of the offspring.
34. What would be the resultant genotypic ratio from the above question?
A) 1:2:1 B) 3:1
C) 2:2 D) 9:3:3:1
35. A test cross is used to determine the genotype of a plant demonstrating the dominant phenotype (R?). All offspring of the test cross exhibit the dominant phenotype. What is (are) the genotype(s) of the test cross offspring?
A) RR B) Rr
C) rr D) R?
36. Cross-overs occur during
A) metaphase I B) metaphase II
C) anaphase I D) anaphase II
37. If flower color is inherited as an incomplete dominant characteristic with red ( R) being dominant, white (r) being recessive and the heterozygote being pink, what is the genotype of a pink plant?
A) RR B) Rr
C) rr D) PP
38. The closer two genes are on a single chromosome, the more likely which of the following
A) a cross-over will occur B) a cross-over will not occur
C) segregation will occur D) segregation will occur
39. The difference between diffusion and osmosis is that osmosis requires a
A) concentration gradient of solutes B) concentration gradient of solvent
C) concentration gradient of salts
D) membrane
40. If a normal plant is submerged in a solution with a high salt concentration, which way will the water move?
A) into the cell B) out of the cell
C) there will be no net movement D) the salt will prevent water movement
41. How does a plant accumulate ions from the soil, which has a lower concentration than that in the plant?
A) applies pressure to push ions into the cell
B) applies tension to pull the ions into the cell
C) expends energy to transport ions against the concentration gradient
D) roots grow around soil particles trapping the ions in a cell
42. The K+ is pumped into what cells to open the stomates?
A) guard cells B) stomate
C) subsidiary cell D) epidermal cell
43. Which of the following stimulate stomates to open
A) ABA B) darkness
C) light D) wind
44. The cohesion tension theory explains the movement of what in the plant?
A) air B) sap in the phloem
C) water in the xylem D) carbohydrates in the phloem
45. The average xylem vessel members remain functional for
A) a week B) a month
C) a year D) several years
46. During the summer, the strongest sink (with regard to phloem transport) would be
A) the leaves B) the fruit
C) the roots D) the stem
47. The pressure, in the pressure flow hypothesis, is created by
A) active loading of carbohydrates B) root pressure
C) the phloem pump D) the transpiration stream
48. Which of the following is an essential macro nutrient
A) barium B) manganese
C) sulfur D) zinc
49. Lime is a source of which of these elements
A) Ca B) K
C) N
D) P
50. The pH of the soil is important since it directly effects
A) nutrient availability B) phloem pressure
C) root cell membranes D) water availability
51. Typically, the most limiting inorganic element to plant growth is
A) cobalt B) calcium
C) nitrogen D) potassium
52. Iron is essential in the synthesis of
A) anthocyanins B) carotinoids
C) chlorophyll D) xanthophylls
53. Increasing the sand content of a soil typically
A) decreases water holding capacity B) decreases pH
C) increases CEC D) increases porosity (air in the soil)
54. The “A” horizon in the soil is the region of
A) accumulation B) leaching
C) parent material D) water
55. Water holding capacity is increased by
A) clay B) sand
C) silt D) parent material
56. The mature megagametophyte has how many nuclei?
A) 1 B) 2
C) 7 D) 8
57. How many nuclei form the endosperm?
A) 1 B) 2
C) 3 D) 7
58. The pollen tube nucleus fertilizes which megagametophyte nucleus?
A) antipodals B) egg
C) polar D) none of these
59. Which of the following is a non-dehiscent fruit?
A) berry B) capsule
C) follicle D) pod
60. In corn seed, the coleoptile’s primary function is
A) food storage B) photosynthesis
C) protection D) root growth
61. What is the first structure to emerge from the seed?
A) cotyledon B) epicotyl
C) plumule D) radicle
62. The cotyledon is the seed’s
A) immature shoot B) primary stem
C) leaf for storage D) primary root
63. Dodder is an example of what type of plant?
A) epiphytic B) parasitic
C) saprophytic D) mutualistic
64. Ectomycorrhizae grow
A) only on specific plants B) on a wide range of plants
C) not in sterile culture D) the same as endomycorrhizae
65. Beltian bodies, produced by acacia, supply ants with
A) carbohydrates B) protein
C) shelter D) protection
66. The chemical signal on the surface of the plant root that serves as a recognition signal for N-fixing bacteria is called
A) lectin B) leghemoglobin
C) nitrogenase D) bradyrhizobium
67. The most severe competition comes from plants
A) that are the tallest B) that are short
C) in the same species D) from different species
68. American holly occurs naturally in the shade. This environment is were it
A) competes best B) fruits best
C) grows best D) looks best
69. The root system of a tree spreads horizontally out from the stem to a distance of
A) 3 feet B) 10 feet
C) to the edge of the branches D) 2-3 times the width of the branches
70. Allelopathy refers to a plants ability to retard the grow of
A) animals B) insects
C) pathogens D) plants
71. Early successional plants are typified by there
A) ability to tolerate low light B) ability to tolerate stress
C) long life D) slow growth
72. In a climax forest, the net amount of nutrients (assuming no major changes)
A) decreases B) increases
C) remains constant D) most be augmented by fertilizers
73. The most advanced type of pollination is pollination by
A) bee B) beetle
C) moth D) wind
74. Beetle pollination is most effective
A) for flowers with large petals B) for short plants
C) for fragrant flowers D) prior to leaf development
75. The petals of a flower are collectively referred to as the
A) androecium B) calyx
C) corolla D) gynoecium
76. A three carpeled ovary is derived from how many simple ovaries?
A) 1 B) 3
C) 6 D) you can not determine
78. The cork cambium gives rise to what tissue?
A) periderm C) epidermis
B) protoderm D) vascular cambium
79. The vascular bundles of stems differentiate from the
A) ground meristem B) interfascicular region
C) procambium D) vascular cambium
80. The cortex is derived from which primary meristem
A) ground meristem B) procambium
C) protoderm D) vascular cambium
81. A portion of the vascular cambium of roots develops from the
A) endodermis B) pericycle
C) eperiderm D) protoderm
82. The mesophyll develops from this primary meristem:
A) ground meristem B) procambium
C) protoderm D) root cap meristem
83. A lateral root develops from the
A) apical meristem B) axillary bud
C) internode D) pericycle
84. The terms pentarch, polyarch, diarch, triarch and tetrarch refer to the arrangement of this tissue during primary growth of the root:
A) epidermis B) collenchyma
C) parenchyma D) xylem
85. The pit in which the secondary wall overarches the pit membrane is the
A) bordered pit B) primary pit field
C) simple pit D) simple pit pair
86. Which cells are absent from xylem tissue?
A) parenchyma B) sclerenchyma
C) sieve elements D) tracheary elements
87. The openings through sieve areas are
A) bordered pit pairs B) perforations
C) pores D) primary pit fields
88. Long cells supporting leaves and stems during primary growth are one of these:
A) collenchyma B) fibers
C) sclerenchyma D) tracheary elements
89. Vessel members have this feature but tracheids lack this feature:
A) bordered pit pairs B) nuclei
C) perforations D) secondary walls
90. The conducting cell of the phloem of all most dicotyledonous plants is the
A) sieve cell B) sieve element
C) sieve-tube member D) vessel
91. Stomates are
A) intercellular spaces B) ordinary cells
C) primary pit fields D) secondary tissues
92. The primary meristem which differentiates into the steele is the
A) ground meristem B) procambium
C) protoderm D) root cap meristem
93. Secondary walls in the form of rings, springs, and spirals form in these cells during primary growth of an organ:
A) fibers B) collenchyma
C) sieve cells D) tracheary elements
94. The cell that compensates for the loss of the nucleus in the sieve cell is the
A) albuminous cell B) companion cell
C) subsidiary cell D) vessel member
95. Which of these tissues differentiates from a lateral meristem?
A) collenchyma B) endodermis
C) epidermis D) periderm
96. Water moves from tracheid to tracheid through
A) bordered pit pairs B) perforation plates
C) pores D) vessels
97. The cells of a meristem which remain a part of the meristem are
A) initials B) derivatives
C) ordinary cells D) transfer cells
98. In sieve elements, plasmodesmata become modified into
A) perforation plates B) pores
C) primary pit fields D) P-proteins
99. Besides the primary xylem and the primary phloem, the vascular cylinder of roots includes the
A) casparian strip B) cortex
C) endodermis D) pericycle
100. The conducting cell of the xylem of a plant which does not make flowers is the
A) sieve element B) tracheid
C) vessel D) vessel member