Botany
I
PLSC
101
Winter
1996
FINAL
Name____________________________________
Multiple
Choice (100 points). Please
indicate the best answer to each question by placing an "X" over the
appropriate letter preceding the correct answer .
1.
Ribosomes are the site of synthesis of
A) DNA
B)
RNA
C) protein
D) car bohydrate.
2.
The name of the mitochondria’s internal membrane is
A) critsae
B) grana
C) stroma
D) tonoplast
3.
A double membrane plastid that has not yet differentiated is called a
A) amyoplast
B)
leucoplast
C) proplastid
D)
peroxisome
4.
Glucose is the only sugar that will directly feed into glycolosis.
How then are other sugars metabolized?
A) They are interconverted into glucose
B) They can not be
metabolized
C) They have a separate
pathway
D) Plants only produce
glucose and need not metabolize other sugars
5.
Glycolosis produces
A) ATP
B) NADH
C) ATP and NADH D) NADPH
6.
Acetyl-CoA is the carrier molecule that transfers C from glocolysis to
the TCA cycle. What is another
source of the C that CoA carries?
A) DNA
B) CO2
C) fat, oils
D) starch
7.
CO2
is derived primarily in
A) Electron transport
B)
glycolosis
C) TCA
D) equally in all processes
8.
The primary high energy molecule that is produced by TCA is
A) ATP
B) NADH
C) ATP and NADH
D) NADPH
9.
TCA occurs in which part of the cell?
A) cytoplasm
B) chloroplast
C) mitochondria
D) vacuole
10.
Electron transport receives electrons from
A) FADH
B) NADH
C) NADPH D) all three of these compounds
11.
Electron transport of respiration occurs in the
A) cristae
B) grana
C) thylakoids
D) tonoplast
12.
The chemo-osmotic pump results in the production
A) ATP
B) FADH
C) NADH
D) NADPH
13.
Cyclic photosynthesis results in the production of
A) ATP
B) FADH
C) NADH
D) NADPH
14.
The light dependent reactions of photosynthesis occur in
A) cristae
B) cytoplasm
C) grana
D) stroma
15.
C4
metabolism reduces photorespiration by
A) fixing CO2
and incorporating it in different locations
B) fixing CO2
and incorporating it at different times
C) fixing O2
and incorporating it in different locations
D) fixing O2
and incorporating it at different times
16.
How many CO2
must be incorporated in the Calvin cycle to produce 1 glucose
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 12
17.
At the reaction center of photosystem I is a molecule
A) carotinoid
B) chlorophyll a
C) chlorophyll b
D) xanthophyll
18.
CAM metabolism commonly occurs in
A) cacti
B) dicots
C) grasses
D) monocots
19.
Geotropic responses are mediated by
A) ABA
B) cytokinins
C) GA
D) IAA
20.
The application of which of the following is most likely to result in
germination of dormant
A) ABA
B) cytokinins
C) GA
D) IAA
21. Which
of the following would you apply to induce roots on a stem
A) ABA
B) cytokinins
C) GA
D) IAA
22.
Thigmotropism is the plant response to
A) gravity
B) light
C) touch
D) sound
23.
When inducing flower production in other than day neutral plants, the
critical photoperiod refers to the
A) the amount of light
B) the minimum amount of light
C) the minimum amount of dark
D) the maximum amount of dark
24.
Which of the following is essential for a short day plant to flower
A) a short day
B) a long day
C) a short night
D) a long night
25.
The onset of dormancy is typically preceded by an increase in
A) ABA
B) cytokinins
C) GA
D) IAA
26.
If a seed has an impermeable seed coat, which of the following will
alleviate this problem
A) a cold period
B) a
warm period
C) ingestion by an animal
D) soaking in water
27.
Meiosis occurs in
A) all cells
B) flower cells.
C) reproductive cells
D) somatic cells
28.
Homologous chromosomes pair up during
A) anaphase I
B)
anaphase II
C) metaphase I
D) metaphase II
29.
Meiosis results in
A) 2 identical cells
B) 4 identical cells
C) 2 cells with recombination
D) 4 cells with
recombination
30.
DNA is contained in the
A) chloroplast
B) mitochondria
C) nucleus D) all three locations
31.
Transcription refers to the production of
A) DNA from DNA
B) RNA from DNA
C) RNA from RNA
D) protein from RNA
32.
The ribosome binds
A) mRNA
B) tRNA
C) rRNA
D) proteins
33.
Two plants, both Rr, are crossed. An “R” and “r” appear across
the top of the Punnett square.
What do the “R” and “r” represent
A) The potential genetic contribution of one parent.
B) The potential contribution of “R” from parent 1 and “r” from
parent 2.
C) The genotype of all offspring.
D) The genotype of 50% of the offspring.
34.
What would be the resultant phenotypic ratio from question 33?
A) 1:2:1
B) 3:1
C) 2:2
D) 9:3:3:1
35.
A test cross is used to determine the genotype of a plant demonstrating
the dominant phenotype. What is the
genotype of the known test cross parent?
A) double dominant
B) double recessive
C) heterozygous
D) unknown
36.
If a tetraploid (has 4 alleles for each characteristic) plant, with a
genotype of RRRr is selfed in a monohybrid cross, what letters will appear
across the top of the Punnett square?
A) R, r
B) R, R
C) R, R, r, r
D) R, R, R, r
37.
If flower color is inherited as an incomplete dominant characteristic
with red being dominant, white being recessive and the heterozygote being pink,
what is the genotypic ratio of the offspring if a white plant is crossed with a
pink plant?
A) 3 red: 1 white
B) 1 red: 2 pink: 1
white
C) 1 red: 1 white
D) 1 pink: 1 white
38.
Linkage
refers to
A) the mid point of a cross-over
B)
the 2 traits in a dihybrid cross
C) two genes on the same chromosome
D) incomplete dominance
39.
The difference between diffusion and osmosis is that osmosis requires
a
A) concentration gradient of solutes
B) concentration gradient of solvent
C) concentration gradient of salts D) membrane
40.
How do large
molecules compare to small ones with respect to the rate of diffusion?
A) faster
B) slower
C) at the same rate
D) do not move
41.
If the salt concentration in the cell is higher than that outside the
cell and the salts can not pass through the membrane, how is the osmotic
pressure equalized?
A) membrane becomes leaky B) membrane breaks
C) water moves into cell D) water moves out of
cell
42.
The
mechanism that opens stomates pumps which ion?
A) Ca
B) Cl
C) K
D) P
43.
Which of the following stimulate stomates to open
A) ABA
B) darkness
C) light
D) wind
44.
The force that drives the water movement in the cohesion tension theory
is
A) diffusion
B) pressure flow
C) transpiration
D) root pressure
45.
The advantage of vessel members as compared to trachieds is that they
A) are less likely to cavitate do to the presence of pit pairs in end
walls
B) are less likely to cavitate do to the presence of pit pairs in side
walls
C) offer less resistance to water flow
D) offer more resistance to water flow
46.
Phloem transport during the summer typically moves from
A) the leaves to the roots
B) the roots to the leaves
C) the leaves to the shoot tip D) the leaves to both the shoot tip and roots
47.
The major
substance moved in the phloem stream are
A) amino acids
B) carbohydrates
C) fats
D) nucleic acids
48.
The difference between macro and micro nutrients is that macro nutrients
are
A) larger
B) more important
C) move only in the xylem D) needed in greater quantities
49.
A typical fertilizer contains what three elements
A) N, P, K
B) N, P, Ca
C) N, K, Ca
D) P,
K, Ca
50.
The pH of the soil is important since it directly effects
A) nutrient availability
B) phloem pressure
C) root cell membranes
D) water availability
51.
Which of the following is not
an essential element for all plants
A) cobalt
B) copper
C) magnesium
D) zinc
52.
Magnesium is essential in the synthesis of
A) anthocyanins
B) carotinoids
C) chlorophyll
D)
xanthophylls
53.
Increasing the clay content of a soil
A) decreases water holding capacity
B) decreases pH
C) increases CEC
D) increases porosity (air in the soil)
54.
The most effective method to increase the porosity of the soil is to add
A) clay
B) silt
C) organic matter
D)
water
55.
CEC is a measure of
A) acidity
B) fertility
C) porosity
D) water holding capacity
56.
The polar nuclei of an egg develop into
A) cotyledons
B) endosperm
C) embryo
D) seed coat
57.
How many nuclei develop from one pollen grain?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
58.
Double fertilization refers to the fertilization of what two egg nuclei?
A) antipodals and egg
B) antipodals and polar
C) egg and polar
D) egg and synergids
59.
How many cells make-up the mature megagametophyte?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 7
60.
Seed that germinate with the cotyledons remaining beneath the soil are
referred to as
A) epigeous
B) hypogeous
C) geotropic
D) phototropic
61.
One of the first enzymes that becomes active during germination is
A) amylase
B) ATPase
C) germinase
D) peroxidase
62.
The first structure to emerge from a germination seed is the
A) epicotyl
B) hypocotyl
C) plumule
D) radicle
63.
Mycorrhizae improve plant growth under what type of soil conditions?
A) all conditions
B) dry soils
C) low fertility (particularly P)
D) dry soils with low fertility
64.
Endomycorrhizae grow
A) only on specific plants
B) on a wide range of plants
C) easily in sterile culture
D)
the same as ectomycorrhizae
65.
An example of a saprophytic plants is
A) beech drops
B) dodder
C) indian pipes
D) mistletoe
66.
The chemical signal on the surface of the plant root that serves as a
recognition signal for N-fixing bacteria is called
A) lectin
B) leghemoglobin
C) nitrogenase
D) bradyrhizobium
67.
The most severe competition comes from plants
A) that are the tallest
B) that are short
C) from the same species
D)
from different species
68.
The flora we observed in the wood in this area is typical of
A) the coastal plain
B) the piedmont
C) transition from piedmont to coastal plain D) the mountains
69.
The majority of the root system of a tree is in the upper
A) 3 feet of soil
B) 10 feet of soil
C) 30 feet of soil
D) 50 feet of soil
70.
Allelopathy refers to a plants ability to retard the grow of
A) animals
B) insects
C) pathogens
D) plants
71.
Early successional plants are typified by there
A) ability to tolerate low light
B) ability to tolerate stress
C) long life
D) slow growth
72.
In a climax forest, the net amount of nutrients (assuming no major
changes)
A) decreases
B) increases
C) remains constant
D) most be augmented by fertilizers
73.
The most primitive type of pollination is
A) bee
B) beetle
C) moth
D) wind
74.
Wind pollination is most effective
A) for flowers with large petals
B) for short plants
C) over long distances
D) prior to leaf development
75.
The sepals of a flower are collectively referred to as the
A) androecium
B) calyx
C) corolla
D) gynoecium
76.
The units of a compound pistil (that were once individual, simple
pistils) are called
A) carpels
B) locules
C) ovules
D) ovaries
77.
The cork cambium gives rise to what tissue?
A) periderm
B)
epidermis
C) protoderm
D) vascular cambium
78.
From which primary meristem do vascular tissues arise?
A) ground meristem
B) protoderm
C) procambium
D) vascular cambium
79.
In addition to the procambium, which tissue gives rise to the vascular
cambium in the root?
A) phloem
B)
xylem
C) pericycle
D) endodermis
80.
Which region of the root differentiates from the ground meristem?
A) cortex
B) primary xylem and primary phloem
C) stele
D) vascular cylinder
81.
The conducting cell with the biggest pores is the
A) sieve cell
B)
sieve-tube member
C) tracheid
D)
vessel member
82.
Which of the following cell types is not part of the phloem tissue?
A) companion cell
B) parenchyma
C) sclerenchyma
D)
vessel member
83.
Meristems responsible for the formation of secondary tissues are
A) apical meristems
B) primary meristems
C) lateral meristems
D) ground meristems
84.
The interfascicular parts of the vascular cambium of stems differentiate
from
A) ground tissue
B)
procambium
C) periderm
D) vascular bundles
85.
Branches of stems typically arise from
A) axillary buds
B) deep within the
cortex
C) the endodermis
D) the pericycle
86.
Which tissue differentiates from a primary meristem only?
A) epidermis
B) periderm
C) phloem
D) xylem
87.
The primary meristem responsible for the formation of the primary xylem
and primary phloem is the
A) ground meristem
B) lateral meristem
C) procambium D) vascular cambium
88.
Which are not associated with sieve cells?
A) albuminous cells B) P-proteins
C) pores
D) sieve plates
89.
The Casparian strip is a wall thickening located in the
A) endodermis
B) pericycle
C) phloem
D) xylem
90.
The quiescent center refers to an area of
non deviding cells in the
A) apical meristem
B) center of the stem
C) root meristem
D) secondary growth
91.
From which primary meristem does the interfascicular region
differentiate?
A) ground meristem
B) procambium
C) protoderm
D) vascular cambium
92.
Tracheary elements form secondary walls of rings and spirals in stems
A) after elongation growth stops
B) during primary growth
C) during secondary growth
D) never
93.
The least differentiated cells of a meristem are the
A) initials
B) derivatives
C) primary meristems
D) primary tissues
94.
This tissue is restricted to strands or cylinders near the epidermis of
stems and leaves during primary growth:
A) collenchyma
B) periderm
C) parenchyma
D) sclerenchyma
95.
A feature that is common to both types of tracheary elements is
A) bordered pit pairs
B) life at maturity
C) perforation plates
D) tapered shape in long section
96.
The tracheary element without perforation plates is the
A) sieve element
B) tracheid
C) vessel
D) vessel member
97.
These features are observed in order to distinguish between the types of
sieve elements:
A) nuclei
B) P-proteins
C) pore sizes D) presence or absence of callose
98. A
pit which is wider close to the primary wall but narrower closer to the center
of the cell is always known as a
A) bordered pit
B) primary pit field
C) pit pair
D) simple pit
99.
Albuminous cells occur next to
A) all sieve elements
B) sieve-tube members
C) sieve cells
D) vessel members
100. Most of the
water in a vessel moves from vessel member to vessel member through their
A) bordered pit pairs
B) perforation plates
C) pores
D) sieve plates